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Is this the 50s where you couldn't get any credit or open a brokerage account even with your good enough single salary if you weren’t white and male, heterosexual?

Trying to spark introspection about how all of these things are interrelated, but clearly only to some of us.



Are you implying that the much higher home cost/average income ratio, CEO/worker pay ratio and necessity for households to be dual income to raise families nowadays vs the 50s are due to a lack of racism, sexism, and homophobia from lenders and brokers?

The point of the original post was the general lower severe economic disparity in the United States in the 50s vs today. Since the 1980s the Gini coefficient in the United States has raised rapidly across all racial groups. Just because things are better for all deprivileged groups doesn't mean the American people, as a whole, aren't getting screwed over more via the increase in income inequality.

https://www.pewresearch.org/social-trends/2018/07/12/income-...


No, I'm not implying that.


Are you implying it is contradictory to wish for both the wealth redistribution levels of the 50's and the human tolerance of now?


Is that the wealth distribution among white males or the wealth distribution among the population as a whole?


It probably is contradictory if 1950s level was artificially depressed by disqualifying 2/3rds of the population and ramming highways through the neighborhoods they had to live in




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